Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
13.06.2025 11:54
There's no rule.
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
Oracle Stock Jumps On Earnings Beat, Upbeat Cloud Growth Forecast - Investor's Business Daily
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
Why are you a Muslim? Why is it Islam for you and not something else?
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
You'll usually find your answer there.
Is it wrong of me to feel uncomfortable that my friend thinks my brother is hot?
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.